Actually, unlike other rights listed in the Constitution, such as the right of the people to keep and bear arms in the Second Amendment, or the right to a speedy and public trial in the Sixth Amendment, the Constitution may not explicitly give U.S. citizens the “right” to vote. Many legal experts believe the right is implicit, embedded in the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment:
When the right to vote at any election … is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such state, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such state.” Since the addition of the 14th Amendment, the U.S. Constitution has been amended four more times to prohibit states from denying the right to vote based on race, color, or previous condition of servitude (15th Amendment), sex (19th Amendment), failure to pay poll tax (24th Amendment), and age, 18 years and older (26th Amendment). No constitutional provision asserts that there is a right
to vote; only that states cannot deny the right to vote based on the above-mentioned criteria. So following this logic if 2nd Amendment rights are explicitly expressed (and they are) then only additional amendments could to change the original intent. Under the U.S. Constitution, states are accountable for managing federal elections. Most states explicitly assert the right to vote for each of its citizens in its state constitution. Although,
this is not a right that states are required to grant: Section 2 of the 14th Amendment “penalizes states that withhold the ballot but does not require them to grant it.” Thus, if a state grants the right to vote for citizens of its state, then the state will be punished if they prevent a state citizen from voting using specific criteria. The government can effectively restrict voting access for any reason other than the few enumerated prohibitions, and the right still has not been violated in any legal sense.” Because there are different views regarding the meaning of the 2nd Amendment and there are not additional amendments protecting gun ownership the gov't has been able to pass laws limiting gun ownership because in many minds such laws are not explicitly denied.
* I'm not a lawyer, but I did use this article (
https://www.collegesoflaw.edu/blog/...vote-a-constitutional-guarantee-or-privilege/) to express my view!
